1. H921 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 18.) A 70 percent increase in stalling speed would imply a bank angle of
2. H539 CFI AIR
Which statement is true relating to the factors which produce stalls?
C) The stalling angle of attack is independent of the speed of airflow over the wings.
3. H540 CFI AIR
Which statement is true concerning the aerodynamic conditions which occur during a spin entry?
C) After a full stall, the wing that drops continues in a stalled condition while the rising wing regains and continues to produce some lift, causing the rotation.
4. H912 CFI AIR
During a steady climb, the angle of climb depends on
A) excess thrust.
5. H917 CFI ALL
The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces that further remove the aircraft from its original position, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as
A) static instability.
6. H917 CFI ALL
If the aircraft's nose initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the aircraft displays
A) positive static stability.
7. H940 CFI AIR
What is the effect of center of gravity on the spin characteristics of an aircraft?
A) A flat spin may develop if the CG is too far aft.
8. H940 CFI
What is characteristic of the indicated airspeed if the CG is at the most forward allowable position and constant power and altitude are maintained?
B) Indicated airspeed will be less than it would be with the CG in the most rearward allowable position.
9. H940 CFI
If the CG of an aircraft is moved from the aft limit to beyond the forward limit, how will it affect the cruising and stalling speed?
C) Decrease the cruising speed and increase the stalling speed.
10. H940 CFI
An aircraft is loaded with the CG aft of the aft limit. What effect will this have on controllability?
A) Stall and spin recovery may be difficult or impossible.
11. H940 CFI
As the CG location is changed, recovery from a stall becomes progressively
B) more difficult as the CG moves rearward.
12. H1068 CFI
Which characteristic of a spin is not a characteristic of a steep spiral?
A) Stalled wing.
13. H527 CFI
It is possible to fly an aircraft just clear of the ground at a slightly slower airspeed than that required to sustain level flight at higher altitudes. This is the result of
A) interference of the ground surface with the airflow patterns about the aircraft in flight.
14. H527 CFI
An airplane leaving ground effect will
B) experience a decrease in stability and a nose-up change in moments.
15. H927 CFI
An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would
A) experience avionics equipment failure.
16. H932 CFI
Which instrument would be affected by excessively low pressure in the airplane's vacuum system?
A) Heading indicator.
17. H931 CFI
During power-off stalls with flaps full down, the stall occurs and the pointer on the airspeed indicator shows a speed less than the minimum limit of the white arc on the indicator. This is most probably due to
C) installation error in the pitot-static system.
18. H927 CFI
During which stroke of a reciprocating engine is the gaseous mixture expanding within the cylinder?
19. H920 CFI AIR
A propeller rotating clockwise, as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the aircraft to the
B) left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
20. J05 CFI ALL
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
C) Denotes intersecting runways.
21. J05 CFI ALL
What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
B) Holds aircraft short of the runway.
22. J05 CFI ALL
What is the purpose of No Entry sign?
A) Identifies paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.
23. J05 CFI ALL
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
B) Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
24. J05 CFI ALL
What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?
B) That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing.
25. J05 CFI ALL
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
C) 080° and 260° magnetic.
26. J05 CFI ALL
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
B) Identifies direction to take-off runways.
27. J05 CFI ALL
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
B) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
28. J05 CFI ALL
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
29. J05 CFI ALL
What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?
B) Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.
30. J05 CFI ALL
What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?
A) Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway.
31. J05 CFI ALL
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
A) Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
32. H550 CFI
Under normal conditions, a proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the
A) direction of motion of the aircraft and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
33. H549 CFI AIR
If poor aircraft controllability is experienced during an emergency go-around with full flaps, the cause is most probably due to
B) the high-power, low-airspeed situation with the airplane trimmed for a full-flap configuration.
34. H546 CFI AIR
What may occur if the initial bank is too shallow when performing a chandelle?
B) Stalling the aircraft before reaching the 180° point.
35. H546 CFI AIR
When performing a lazy eight, when should the aircraft be at minimum airspeed?
B) 90° point.
36. H534 CFI AIR
What will cause the nose of an aircraft to move in the direction of the turn before the bank starts in a turn entry?
B) Rudder being applied too soon.
37. H538 CFI AIR
Two distinct flight situations should be covered when teaching slow flight. These are the establishment and maintenance of
A) airspeeds appropriate for landing approaches, and flight at reduced airspeeds.
38. H545 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 50.) During S-turn practice, which positions require the steeper angle of bank?
B) 3 and 4.
39. H539 CFI AIR
If inadequate right rudder is used during a climbing right turn, what may occur if the aircraft stalls?
A) A spin to the left.
40. H526 CFI AIR
The indicated lift-off airspeed for short-field takeoffs in a particular aircraft will normally be
B) greater than for soft- or rough-field takeoffs.
41. H527 CFI AIR
When explaining the techniques used for making short- and soft-field takeoffs, it would be correct to state that
A) during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made as soon as possible.
42. A01 CFI AIR
Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady flight speed at which an airplane is controllable?
43. A20 CFI AIR
To act as pilot in command of an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable prop, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to
C) receive ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement of proficiency.
44. A20 CFI AIR
What recent flight experience must be met before a commercial airplane pilot may fly solo in an airplane?
B) Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated within the preceding 24 calendar months.
45. A20 CFI AIR
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to
B) receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
46. A23 CFI AIR
What night flight training is required for an unrestricted Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?
A) 3 hours to include 10 takeoffs and 10 landings and one cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles.
47. A24 CFI AIR
Under FAR Part 61, a commercial pilot-airplane applicant is required to have a minimum of how much cross-country experience?
C) 50 hours.
48. A22 CFI ALL
To operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has
B) received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized.
49. B08 CFI ALL
What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?
A) The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.
50. B08 CFI ALL
What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?
C) Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement.
51. B08 CFI AIR
A pilot in a multiengine land airplane is planning to practice IFR procedures under a hood in VMC conditions. The safety pilot must possess at least a
B) Private Pilot Certificate with airplane multiengine land rating and a current medical certificate.
52. B08 CFI ALL
When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is
B) 200 knots.
53. B08 CFI ALL
When operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is required to be at least
C) 1 SM.
54. H924 CFI AIR
Adverse yaw during a turn entry is caused by
B) decreased induced drag on the lowered wing and increased induced drag on the raised wing.
55. H912 CFI ALL
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of
56. H912 CFI ALL
The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the
C) distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing.
57. H912 CFI AIR
Which action will result in a stall?
C) Exceeding the critical angle of attack.
58. H534 CFI AIR
When rolling out of a steep-banked turn, what causes the lowered aileron to create more drag than when rolling into the turn?
A) The wing's angle of attack is greater as the rollout is started.
59. H912 CFI ALL
The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a wing is called
B) profile drag.
61. H912 CFI AIR
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft's
C) aerodynamic balance and controllability.
62. H917 CFI ALL
The capability of an aircraft to respond to a pilot's inputs, especially with regard to flightpath and attitude, is
75. A20 CFI AIR
A flight instructor applicant must demonstrate spins in an airplane or glider when
B) being retested for deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness or spins demonstrated during an initial test.
77. B12 CFI ALL
What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?
B) 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
78. B08 CFI ALL
While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 5 SM.
83. H921 CFI AIR
An airplane has a normal stalling speed of 60 knots but is forced into an accelerated stall at twice that speed. What maximum load factor will result from this maneuver?
A) 4 G's.
84. H912 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 20.) At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the aircraft will
A) have its maximum lift/drag ratio.
85. H912 CFI ALL
As airspeed increases in level flight, total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum lift/drag speed because of the
C) increase in parasite drag.
86. H534 CFI
(Refer to figure 22.) While rolling into a right turn, if the inclinometer appears as illustrated in A, the HCL and CF vectors would be acting on the aircraft as illustrated in
B) 2, and more right pedal pressure is needed to center the ball.
87. H912 CFI ALL
Why does increasing speed also increase lift?
B) The increased impact of the relative wind on an airfoil's lower surface creates a greater amount of air being deflected downward.
88. H915 CFI AIR
The three axes of an aircraft intersect at the
A) center of gravity.
89. H917 CFI AIR
An airplane would have a tendency to nose up and have an inherent tendency to enter a stalled condition when the center of pressure is
C) forward of the center of gravity.
90. H912 CFI ALL
Lift produced by an airfoil is the net force developed perpendicular to the
B) relative wind.
91. H1017 CFI AIR
Which subsonic planform provides the best lift coefficient?
B) Elliptical wing.
92. H917 CFI ALL
If the aircraft's nose remains in the new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the aircraft displays
A) neutral static stability.
93. H1017 CFI AIR
Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the
B) wingspan to the mean chord.
94. H1019 CFI AIR
At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing)
B) decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
95. H1019 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 21.) Which aircraft has the highest aspect ratio?
96. H912 CFI ALL
Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?
C) Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
97. H912 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 19.) At which angle of attack does the airplane travel the maximum horizontal
distance per foot of altitude lost?
98. H912 CFI AIR
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables an airplane to land at a slower speed because it
B) delays the stall to a higher angle of attack.
99. H917 CFI ALL
The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as
100. H917 CFI AIR
The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral angle is to
A) increase lateral stability.
101. H945 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 30.) Determine the approximate crosswind component.
Landing Rwy 22
Wind 260° at 23 kts
B) 15 knots.
102. H948 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 31.) What is the total landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Temperature 15 °C
Pressure altitude 4,000 ft
Weight 3,000 lb
Headwind 22 kts
B) 1,175 feet.
103. H921 CFI AIR
Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?
C) Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude.
104. L52 CFI ALL
Which statement is true regarding preheating of an aircraft during cold-weather operations?
A) The cockpit, as well as the engine, should be preheated.
105. H926 CFI AIR
Which type of flap creates the least change in pitching moment?
106. H933 CFI ALL
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the
right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
B) The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
107. H933 CFI ALL
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
C) an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
108. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
The low temperature that causes carburetor ice in an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor is normally the result of the
C) vaporization of fuel and expansion of air in the carburetor.
109. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
B) a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
110. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
C) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing a decrease in air pressure.
111. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
Fuel injection systems, compared to carburetor systems, are generally considered to be
A) just as susceptible to impact icing.
112. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
Which statement is true regarding fouling of the spark plugs of an aircraft engine?
A) Spark plug fouling results from operating with an excessively rich mixture.
113. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
As flight altitude increases, what will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control?
C) The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant.
114. H920 CFI AIR
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
B) permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
115. H920 CFI AIR
Propeller slip is the difference between the
B) geometric pitch and the effective pitch of the propeller.
116. J10 CFI ALL
Local Airport Advisory service is usually available at all airports
B) where a Flight Service Station is located on the airport.
117. J11 CFI ALL
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should
continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
C) 10 miles.
118. J03 CFI ALL
A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates that
B) 1,000 feet of runway remain.
119. J11 CFI ALL
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
C) the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
120. J13 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 54.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is
C) left-hand for Rwy 35 and right-hand for Rwy 17.
121. J13 CFI ALL
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
B) to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
122. J27 CFI ALL
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
C) being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
123. J09 CFI ALL
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
B) received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
124. J08 CFI ALL
Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is
B) 18,000 feet MSL.
125. J08 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 47.) Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas?
C) 4,000 feet above airport.
126. J08 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 47.) What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?
B) 10 miles.
127. J08 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 44.) Where does the floor of controlled airspace begin over Saginaw Airport (area 1)?
128. J08 CFI ALL
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
C) 18,000 feet MSL.
129. J08 CFI ALL
To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must
B) contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
130. J09 CFI ALL
When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot
B) should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
131. J09 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 45.) What are the requirements for operating in the alert area (area 6) just west of Corpus Christi International Airport (area 3)?
C) There are no requirements, but pilots should be extremely cautious due to extensive student training.
132. H532 CFI ALL
Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
C) Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
133. H545 CFI AIR, RTC
(Refer to figure 48.) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90°?
A) Corners 1 and 4.
134. H545 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 49.) If you instruct a student to practice turns around a point using a bank that is not to exceed 45° at its steepest point, it would be best to start at which of the positions shown?
135. H545 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 49.) The angle of bank will be most nearly equal in which positions?
B) 1 and 5.
136. L05 CFI ALL
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
B) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.
137. L05 CFI ALL
Many experienced pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns which must be identified and eliminated include
B) peer pressure, scud running, loss of situational awareness, and operating with inadequate fuel reserves.
138. L05 CFI ALL
What are the four fundamental risk elements in the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process that comprise any given aviation situation?
A) Pilot, aircraft, environment, and mission.
139. J31 CFI ALL
If an individual has gone scuba diving which has not required a controlled ascent and will be flying to cabin pressure altitudes of 8,000 feet or less, the recommended waiting time is at least
B) 12 hours.
140. J31 CFI ALL
During a climb to 18,000 feet, the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere
C) remains the same.
141. J31 CFI ALL
Hyperventilation results in
A) a lack of carbon dioxide in the body.
142. J31 CFI ALL
Hypoxia is the result of
B) reduced barometric pressures at altitude.
143. H994 CFI ALL
How can smoking affect a pilot?
B) Reduces the oxygen-carrying capability of the blood.
144. J31 CFI ALL
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
C) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
145. H983 CFI ALL
Departure path straight out
Takeoff time 1030 DST
Winds during climb 180° at 30 kts
True course during climb 160°
Airport elevation 1,500 ft
True airspeed 125 kts
Rate of climb 500 ft/min
What would be the distance and time upon reaching 8,500 feet MSL?
B) 23 NM and 1044 DST.
146. H983 CFI AIR, RTC
If fuel consumption is 15.3 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 167 knots, how much fuel is required for an aircraft to travel 620 NM?
C) 57 gallons.
147. H983 CFI ALL
After 141 miles are flown from the departure point, the aircraft's position is located 11 miles off course. If 71 miles remain to be flown, what approximate total correction should be made to converge on the destination?
148. H983 CFI AIR
Usable fuel at takeoff 40 gal
Fuel consumption rate 12.2 gal/hr
Constant groundspeed 120 kts
Flight time since takeoff 1 hr 30 min
According to FAR Part 91, how much farther can an airplane be flown under night VFR?
C) 121 NM.
149. H983 CFI AIR, RTC
On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.
Distance between A and B 70 NM
Forecast wind 310° at 15 kts
Pressure altitude 8,000 ft
Ambient temperature -10 °C
True course 270°
The required indicated airspeed would be approximately
B) 137 knots.
150. H985 CFI ALL
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should
B) add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
151. H983 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 40.) The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents
A) true heading and airspeed.
152. H983 CFI AIR, RTC
If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
C) 246° and 13 knots.
153. J37 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 46.) What does the figure 24 (area 6) indicate?
A) Maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle.
154. J34 CFI ALL
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
B) Airport/Facility Directory.
155. H983 CFI ALL
Usable fuel at takeoff 36 gal
Fuel consumption rate 12.4 gal/hr
Constant groundspeed 140 kts
Flight time since takeoff 48 min
According to FAR Part 91, how much farther can an airplane be flown under day VFR?
C) 189 NM.
156. H830 CFI ALL
If you are 30 miles from the NDB transmitter and the ADF indicates 3° off course, how many miles off course are you?
157. H830 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 41.) If on a magnetic heading of 090°, which ADF indicator would show a magnetic bearing to the station of 180°?
158. H830 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 43.) Which RMI indicator shows your position to be northwest of the station?
159. H989 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 42.) At which aircraft position(s) would you receive OMNI indication V?
A) 2 only.
160. H989 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 42.) Which OMNI indications would you receive for aircraft 5 and 7?
C) W and Z.
161. J01 CFI ALL
When using a VOT to check the accuracy of a VOR receiver with an RMI, what should the RMI indicate if no error exists?
B) 180° TO.
162. I08 CFI ALL
While maintaining a magnetic heading of 060° and a true airspeed of 130 knots, the 150° radial of a VOR is crossed at 1137 and the 140° radial at 1145. The approximate time and distance to the station would be
C) 48 minutes and 104 NM.
163. J01 CFI ALL
A particular VORTAC station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
A) removal of the identification feature.
164. A01 CFI ALL
Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to
C) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
165. A01 CFI ALL
Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'?
A) A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
166. D12 CFI ALL
Information recorded during normal operation by a required cockpit voice recorder in a passenger carrying airplane
B) may all be erased except the last 30 minutes.
167. A27 CFI ALL
The holder of a Ground Instructor Certificate with an advanced rating is authorized to provide
C) ground training in aeronautical knowledge areas for any pilot certificate or rating.
168. A20 CFI ALL
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
C) All of the time the second in command is controlling the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
169. A20 CFI ALL
A flight review will consist of
A) a minimum of 1 hour ground training and 1 hour flight training.
170. A20 CFI ALL
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
171. A20 CFI ALL
What minimum documentation is required to take an FAA knowledge test for any flight instructor rating?
A) Proper identification.
172. A20 CFI ALL
What is the duration of a Student Pilot Certificate?
C) 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued.
173. A26 CFI ALL
The type and date of each student pilot endorsement given shall be maintained by each flight instructor. For what period of time is this record required to be retained?
C) 3 years.
174. A20 CFI ALL
What action may be taken against a person whom the Administrator finds has cheated on a knowledge test?
A) Any certificate or rating held by the person may be suspended or revoked.
175. A20 CFI ALL
A person whose Flight Instructor Certificate has been suspended may not
B) apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.
176. A20 CFI ALL
An applicant has failed a knowledge test for the second time. With training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor, when may the applicant apply for a retest?
177. A20 CFI ALL
To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, one of the requirements is for the applicant to hold at least a valid
C) Third-Class Medical Certificate.
178. B08 CFI ALL
While in flight, a steady red light directed at you from the control tower means
B) give way to other aircraft; continue circling.
179. B08 CFI ALL
What is the minimum fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? Enough to fly to
C) the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.
180. B08 CFI ALL
To operate an aircraft over any congested area, a pilot should maintain an altitude of at least
B) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
181. B08 CFI ALL
Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
A) 2,500 feet.
182. B07 CFI ALL
An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the
C) aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
183. B08 CFI ALL
Which preflight action is required for every flight?
B) Determine runway length at airports of intended use.
184. B08 CFI ALL
Which statement is true regarding the use of seatbelts and shoulder harnesses?
B) The pilot in command must ensure that each person on board an aircraft is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seatbelts.
185. B07 CFI ALL
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, a pilot in command may
A) deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
186. B13 CFI ALL
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
A) Its use is not permitted.
187. B13 CFI ALL
A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include the previous
C) changes required by airworthiness directives.
188. B13 CFI ALL
An aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
B) July 31, next year.
189. B11 CFI ALL
Regarding certificates and documents, no person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it an
C) Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, and approved flight manual.
190. B11 CFI ALL
How long may an aircraft be operated after the emergency locator transmitter has been initially removed for maintenance?
A) 90 days.
191. B11 CFI ALL
Position lights are required to be displayed on all aircraft in flight from
A) sunset to sunrise.
192. B11 CFI ALL
Which cabin pressure altitude allows a pilot to operate an aircraft up to 30 minutes without supplemental oxygen?
B) 12,600 feet MSL.
193. B11 CFI ALL
The primary purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL) is to
B) list the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft.
194. G10 CFI ALL
The NTSB defines a serious injury as any injury which
A) causes severe tendon damage.
195. G10 CFI ALL
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office shall be notified
196. I57 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 5.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
C) 1800Z to 1800Z.
197. I57 CFI ALL
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing?
198. I57 CFI ALL
What information would be covered in an AIRMET?
B) Extensive mountain obscurement.
199. I57 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 6.) What sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?
A) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
200. I57 CFI ALL
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, you should refer to
B) an AIRMET or SIGMET.
201. I64 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 14.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
B) For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
202. I55 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 3.) Which station is reporting the wind as calm?
203. I55 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 3.) The temperature/dew point spread at KAUS is
A) 4 ºC.
204. I55 CFI ALL
KOUN 151355Z AUTO 22010KT 10SM CLR BLO 120 13/10 A2993 RMK A02 $.
The ASOS report indicates that the location is
B) possibly in need of maintenance.
205. I57 CFI ALL
Vertical visibility is shown on METAR/TAF reports when the sky is
206. I65 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 15.) What percent coverage of severe thunderstorms is forecast to occur in the area of moderate risk in the north-central United States?
A) 6 to 10.
207. I60 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 13, area B.) What is the top for precipitation of the radar return?
B) 24,000 feet MSL.
208. I58 CFI ALL
The intensity trend of a front (as of chart time) is best determined by referring to a
A) Surface Analysis Chart.
209. I59 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 12.) What is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?
210. I59 CFI ALL
A Weather Depiction Chart is useful to a pilot in determining
C) areas where weather conditions were reported above or below VFR minimums.
211. I59 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 10.) On a Weather Depiction Chart, what does this information mean?
B) Visibility 5 miles, haze, overcast, ceiling 3,500 feet.
212. J25 CFI ALL
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
C) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
213. I28 CFI ALL
When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the
B) leeward side when flying into the wind.
214. I30 CFI ALL
Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
B) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm.
215. I30 CFI ALL
What are the minimum requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
B) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and lifting action.
216. I30 CFI ALL
What feature is associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
B) Continuous updrafts.
217. I30 CFI ALL
Consider the following statements regarding hail as an in-flight hazard and select those which are correct.
1. There is a correlation between the visual appearance of thunderstorms and the amount of hail within them.
2 Large hail is most commonly found in thunderstorms which have strong updrafts and large liquid water content.
3 Hail may be found at any level within a thunderstorm but not in the clear air outside of the storm cloud.
4 Hail is usually produced during the mature stage of the thunderstorm's lifespan.
5 Hailstones may be thrown upward and outward from a storm cloud for several miles.
The true statements are:
A) 2, 4, and 5.
218. I28 CFI ALL
Low-level wind shear, which results in a sudden change of wind direction, may occur
C) when there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion.
219. I27 CFI ALL
What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air and very warm surface temperature?
C) Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds.
220. I27 CFI ALL
Consider the following air mass characteristics:
1. Cumuliform clouds.
2. Stable lapse rate.
3. Unstable lapse rate.
4. Stratiform clouds and fog.
5. Smooth air (above the friction level) and poor visibility.
6. Turbulence up to about 10,000 feet and good visibility except in areas of precipitation.
A moist air mass, which is colder than the surface over which it passes, frequently has which of the above characteristics?
A) 1, 3, and 6.
221. I23 CFI ALL
In the Northern Hemisphere, a pilot making a long distance flight from east to west would most likely find favorable winds associated with high- and low-pressure systems by flying to the
C) south of a high and to the north of a low.
222. I23 CFI ALL
Which statement is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?
B) A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
223. I25 CFI ALL
At approximately what altitude above the surface would you expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 77 °F and the dewpoint is 53 °F?
C) 5,500 feet AGL.
224. I26 CFI ALL
Which middle level clouds are characterized by rain, snow, or ice pellets posing a serious icing problem if temperatures are near or below freezing?
225. I24 CFI
Which is an operational consideration regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread?
B) The temperature spread decreases as the relative humidity increases.
226. I22 CFI ALL
An aircraft is flying at a constant power setting and constant indicated altitude. If the outside air temperature (OAT) decreases, true airspeed will
A) decrease, and true altitude will decrease.
227. I22 CFI ALL
As density altitude increases, which will occur if a constant indicated airspeed is maintained in a no-wind condition?
C) True airspeed increases; groundspeed increases.
228. I31 CFI ALL
Radiation fog is most likely to occur under what conditions?
B) High humidity during the early evening, cool cloudless night with light winds, and favorable topography.
229. I31 CFI ALL
With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
C) It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.
230. I31 CFI ALL
Advection fog is formed as a result of
A) moist air moving over a colder surface.
231. I24 CFI ALL
Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds but evaporating before reaching the ground are known as
232. I25 CFI ALL
From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A) Ambient lapse rate.
233. I21 CFI
If the air temperature is +6 °C at an elevation of 700 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?
B) 3,700 feet MSL.
234. I21 CFI ALL
The most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion is that produced by
A) terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
235. I21 CFI ALL
Which is the primary driving force of weather on the Earth?
A) The Sun.
236. H940 CFI ALL
What is the maximum weight that could be added at Station 130.0 without exceeding the aft CG limit?
Total weight 2,900 lb
CG location Station 115.0
Aft CG limit Station 116.0
C) 207 pounds.
237. H940 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 34.) How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
A) 1 inch to the left.
238. H921 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 18.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 4 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 70 knots?
C) 140 knots.
239. H922 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 17.) A positive load factor of 4 at 140 knots would cause the airplane to
C) be subjected to structural damage.
240. H912 CFI ALL
An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from
B) positive air pressure below the wing's surface and negative air pressure above the wing's surface.
241. W16 CFI AIR
Which aircraft characteristics contribute to spiral instability?
B) Strong static directional stability and weak dihedral effect.
242. H920 CFI AIR
As a result of gyroscopic precession, it can be said that any
B) yawing around the vertical axis results in a pitching moment.
243. H917 CFI AIR
If an increase in power tends to make the nose of an airplane rise, this is the result of the
A) line of thrust being below the center of gravity.
244. H921 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 25.) What would be the indicated stall speed in a 60° banked turn with the gear and flaps up?
B) 117 KIAS.
245. H942 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 29.) What is the approximate glide distance?
Height above terrain 10,500 ft
Tailwind 20 kts
C) 28 miles.
246. H948 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 27.) What indicated airspeed at 3,000 feet would result in the greatest increase in altitude for a given distance?
A) 94 KIAS.
247. H946 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 26.) Determine the takeoff distance required to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
Temperature 23 °C
Pressure altitude 3,000 ft
Weight 2,400 lb
Headwind 15 kts
B) 718 feet.
248. H942 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 24.) Determine the density altitude.
Airport elevation 3,795 ft
OAT 24 °C
Altimeter setting 29.70 inches Hg
A) 5,900 feet.
249. H942 CFI ALL
Which statement is true regarding takeoff performance with high density altitude conditions?
B) The acceleration rate is slower because the engine and propeller efficiency is reduced.
250. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
C) fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
251. K13 CFI AIR, RTC
The amount of water absorbed in aviation fuels will
B) increase as the temperature of the fuel increases.
252. H931 CFI AIR
A possible result of using the emergency alternate source of static pressure inside the cabin of an un-pressurized airplane is the
C) altimeter may indicate an altitude higher than the actual altitude being flown.
253. H516 CFI AIR
To help prevent overturning when taxiing light tricycle-gear airplanes (especially high-wing type) in strong quartering tailwinds, the
B) elevator should be placed in the down position.
254. J27 CFI ALL
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
C) Outward, upward, and around each tip.
255. J08 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 46.) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace surrounding San Jose International
Airport (area 2)?
B) 4,000 feet MSL.
256. J08 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 45.) Assuming owner permission, what minimum avionics equipment is required for operation into Cuddihy Airport (area 8)?
C) Two-way radio communications equipment and transponder with encoding altimeter.
257. J11 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 44.) What minimum avionics equipment is necessary to operate in the airspace up to 3,000 feet MSL over Northwest Airport (area 2)?
B) Transponder and encoding altimeter.
258. J08 CFI ALL
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
C) The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
259. H545 CFI AIR, RTC
(Refer to figure 51.) While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn
B) 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
260. L05 CFI ALL
In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
B) Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
261. L05 CFI ALL
In order to gain a realistic perspective on one's attitude toward flying, a pilot should
B) take a Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test.
262. L05 CFI ALL
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
A) an appropriate antidote.
263. L05 CFI ALL
The DECIDE process consists of six elements to help provide a pilot a logical way of approaching aeronautical decision making. These elements are to
A) detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
264. H979 CFI ALL
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
B) magnetic variation.
265. H982 CFI
True course 258°
Variation 10° E
Indicated airspeed 142 kts
Ambient temperature +05 °C
Pressure altitude 6,500 ft
Forecast wind 350° at 30 kts
Under these conditions, the magnetic heading and groundspeed would be approximately
A) 260° and 155 knots.
266. H983 CFI AIR, RTC
How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
C) 4.08 NM.
267. A150 CFI AIR
If the certification category of an airplane is listed as 'utility,' it means the airplane is intended for which maneuvers?
B) All nonacrobatic maneuvers plus limited acrobatics including spins.
268. A20 CFI AIR, RTC
A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued on May 3 to a person over 40 years of age. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid through
B) May 31, 24 months later.
269. A22 CFI ALL
Who is responsible for administering the required knowledge test to a student pilot prior to solo flight?
C) The student's authorized instructor.
271. B08 CFI ALL
If on a night flight, the pilot of aircraft A observes only the green wingtip light of aircraft B, and the airplanes are converging, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
C) Aircraft A; it is to the right of aircraft B.
272. B13 CFI ALL
Assuring compliance with airworthiness directives is the responsibility of the
C) owner or operator of the aircraft.
273. B11 CFI ALL
How long before the proposed operation should a request be submitted to the controlling ATC facility to operate in Class C airspace without the required altitude reporting transponder?
A) 1 hour.
274. B11 CFI ALL
When an aircraft is being flown over water, under what circumstance must approved flotation gear be readily available to each occupant?
C) When operating for hire beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
275. I57 CFI ALL
For a brief summary of the location and movement of fronts, pressure systems, and circulation patterns, the pilot should refer to
B) an Aviation Area Forecast.
276. I55 CFI ALL
Consider the following statements regarding an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR).
1. A vertical visibility entry does not constitute a ceiling.
2. Fog (FG) can be reported only if the visibility is less than 5/8 mile.
3. The ceiling layer will be designated by a 'C'.
4. Mist (BR) can be reported only if the visibility is 5/8 mile up to six miles.
5. Temperatures reported below zero will be prefixed with a '-'.
6. There is no provision to report partial obscurations.
Select the true statements.
A) 2, 4, and 6.
277. I56 CFI ALL
Interpret the following radar weather report:
LIT 1133 AREA 4TRW 22/100 88/170 196/180 220/115 C2425 MT 310 AT 162/110
B) The maximum top of the cells is located 162° and 110 NM from the station (LIT).
278. I56 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 4.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level
of the base of the ceiling?
A) 505 feet AGL.
279. I29 CFI ALL
The most rapid accumulation of clear ice on an aircraft in flight may occur with temperatures between 0 °C to -15 °C in
A) cumuliform clouds.
280. I28 CFI ALL
Which condition could be expected if a strong temperature inversion exists near the surface?
B) A wind shear with the possibility of a sudden loss of airspeed.
281. I27 CFI ALL
Cool air moving over a warm surface is generally characterized by
A) instability and showers.
282. I27 CFI ALL
What type weather is associated with an advancing warm front that has moist, unstable air?
C) Cumuliform clouds, turbulent air, showery-type precipitation.
283. I23 CFI ALL
What causes wind?
B) Pressure differences.
284. I25 CFI ALL
If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be
C) stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.
285. I31 CFI ALL
One condition necessary for the formation of fog is
C) high relative humidity.
286. I31 CFI ALL
Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts?
C) Precipitation-induced fog.
287. J25 CFI ALL
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A) 6,000 feet per minute.
288. I24 CFI ALL
Which precipitation type usually indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?
C) Ice pellets.
289. I22 CFI ALL
An altimeter indicates 1,850 feet MSL when set to 30.18. What is the approximate pressure altitude?
A) 1,590 feet.
290. I20 CFI ALL
In what part of the atmosphere does most weather occur?
291. H941 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 36.) Determine the condition of the airplane:
Pilot and copilot 375 lb
Passengers - aft position 245 lb
Baggage 65 lb
Fuel 70 gal
A) 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
292. H536 CFI AIR
In a propeller-driven airplane, maximum range occurs at
C) maximum lift/drag ratio.
293. H539 CFI AIR
If an accelerated stall occurs in a steep turn, how will the aircraft respond?
C) In a slip, the high wing stalls first; in a skid, the low wing stalls first; in coordinated flight, both wings stall at the same time.
294. H593 CFI AIR
When operating a light multiengine airplane at VMC, the pilot should expect performance to be sufficient to maintain
295. H926 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 23.) Which is a slotted flap?
296. I05 CFI AIR
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied upon to determine pitch attitude before recovery?
A) Airspeed indicator and altimeter.
297. I05 CFI ALL
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level flight?
298. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
Proper mixture control and better economy in the operation of a fuel injected engine can be achieved best by use of
B) an exhaust gas temperature indicator.
299. H592 CFI AIR
On a multiengine airplane with engines which rotate clockwise, the critical engine is the
C) left engine, because the right engine center of thrust is farther away from the centerline of the fuselage.
300. H549 CFI AIR
What could be a result of a student focusing too far ahead during a landing approach?
C) Difficulty in judging the closeness of the ground resulting in a nose-first touchdown.
301. H546 CFI AIR
What would cause the 45° point to be reached before the maximum pitchup attitude during a lazy eight?
B) Beginning with too rapid a rate of roll.
302. Z01 CFI AIR
Which stall must be performed during a flight instructor - airplane practical test?
A) Power-on or power-off.
303. H545 CFI AIR
(Refer to figure 52.) While performing eights-on-pylons, the turn-and-slip indicator appears as shown in '2'. The pilot must
A) increase altitude to obtain the correct pivotal altitude, and correct the skidding turn.
304. H539 CFI AIR
The objective of a cross-control stall demonstration is to
C) show the effect of improper control technique and emphasize the importance of coordinated control when making turns.
305. H593 CFI AIR
Which is true regarding the operation of a multiengine airplane with one engine inoperative?
B) Banking toward the inoperative engine increases VMC.
306. L05 CFI ALL
The aeronautical decision making (ADM) process identifies several steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps is
C) identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
307. L05 CFI ALL
Examples of classic behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are to
C) complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and 'get the job done.'
308. L05 CFI ALL
When should a flight instructor begin teaching aeronautical decision making (ADM) to a student?
B) As soon as the student is able to control the aircraft during basic maneuvers.
309. L05 CFI ALL
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
B) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
310. J31 CFI ALL
Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
C) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
311. H992 CFI ALL
What suggestion could you make to students who are experiencing motion sickness?
C) Tell the students to avoid unnecessary head movement and to keep their eyes on a point outside the aircraft.
312. H234 CFI FOI
Before endorsing a student for solo flight, the instructor should require the student to demonstrate consistent ability to perform
B) all of the fundamental maneuvers.
313. L10 CFI ALL
During training flights, an instructor should interject realistic distractions to determine if a student can
B) maintain aircraft control while his/her attention is diverted.
314. H830 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 41.) If a magnetic heading of 170° is maintained and you are receiving ADF indication 1, what will be the relative bearing to the station when you intercept the 090° magnetic bearing to the station?
C) 280°. MH+RB=MB
315. A20 CFI ALL
What flight time must be recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
B) Only the flight time necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
316. A20 CFI AIR
An applicant who holds a Commercial Pilot Certificate with ASEL ratings is seeking a MEL rating at the commercial level. On August 1, 2000, the applicant shows you a second class medical dated January 2, 1999. May the applicant take the practical test?
317. A23 CFI AIR
Your student, who is preparing for a Private Pilot practical test in a single-engine airplane, received 3.5 hours of cross-country flight training including flights of 1.9 hours, 1.0 hours, and .6 hours. Is your student eligible to take the practical test?
318. A22 CFI ALL
Prior to a first solo flight, the flight instructor is required to endorse the student's
C) logbook and pilot certificate.
319. B13 CFI ALL
An aircraft operated for hire with passengers aboard has a 100-hour inspection performed after 90 hours in service. The next 100-hour inspection would be due after
B) 100 hours' time in service.
320. B11 CFI ALL
What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?
B) Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL.
321. B13 CFI ALL
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being flown
A) with passengers aboard.
322. I29 CFI ALL
Which is an operational consideration regarding aircraft structural icing?
C) In order for structural ice to form, the temperature at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0 °C (32 °F) or colder.
323. J25 CFI ALL
How long do the maximum intensity winds last in an individual microburst?
A) 2 to 4 minutes.
324. H124 CFI ALL
What would be the new CG location if 135 pounds of weight were added at Station 109.0?
Total weight 2,340 lb
CG location Station 103.0
A) Station 103.3.
325. H940 CFI ALL
What is the location of the CG if 90 pounds are removed from Station 140?
Aircraft weight 6,230 lb
CG location Station 79
326. H940 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 35.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?
C) 300 pounds.
327. H940 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 33.) How should the 200-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
A) 2.5 inches to the left.
328. H921 CFI ALL
If severe turbulence is encountered, the aircraft's airspeed should be reduced to
A) maneuvering speed.
329. H912 CFI ALL
Maximum gliding distance of an aircraft is obtained when
B) induced drag and parasite drag are equal.
330. H1013 CFI AIR
When a slight upward or negative flap deflection is used, the result is
A) increased drag.
B) decreased drag.
C) decreased lift.
331. H931 CFI ALL
What airspeed indicator marking identifies the maximum structural cruising speed of an aircraft?
B) Upper limit of the green arc.
332. H556 CFI AIR
What normally results from excessive airspeed on final approach?
333. H583 CFI AIR
If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster
B) groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
335. H534 CFI ALL
Which would likely result in a slipping turn?
B) Increasing the rate of turn without using rudder.
338. H981 CFI ALL
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
B) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
339. A22 CFI ALL
One requirement for a student pilot to be authorized to make a solo cross-country flight is an endorsement
B) in the student's logbook that the preflight planning and preparation has been reviewed and the student is prepared to make the flight safely.
340. B08 CFI ALL
When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
A) 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
341. I62 CFI ALL
(Refer to figure 16.) What are the probable weather conditions in the area indicated by arrow D on the Stability Chart?
A) Stable air; predominately fair.
342. I28 CFI ALL
Consider the following statements about mountain waves:
1. Mountain waves always develop in a series on the upwind (windward) side of mountain ridges.
2. In a mountain wave, the air dips sharply downward immediately to the lee side of a ridge, before rising and falling in a wave motion for a considerable distance downstream.
3. If the air is humid and the wave is of large amplitude, lenticular (lens-shaped) clouds mark the wave's crest.
4. In a typical wave, the greatest amplitude is seldom more than 1,000 feet above the ridge crest elevation.
From the statements above, select those which are true.
A) 2 and 3.
348. H226 CFI FOI
Which statement is true about instructors' critiques?
C) Before students willingly accept their instructor's critique, they must first accept the instructor.
349. H227 CFI FOI
A written test is said to be comprehensive when it
B) samples liberally whatever is being measured.
350. H227 CFI FOI
Which is the main disadvantage of supply-type test items?
A) They cannot be graded with uniformity.
351. H227 CFI FOI
A written test has validity when it
C) measures what it is supposed to measure.
352. H227 CFI FOI
Which is one of the major difficulties encountered in the construction of multiple-choice test items?
C) Inventing distractors which will be attractive to students lacking knowledge or understanding.
353. H227 CFI
In a written test, which type of selection-type test items reduces the probability of guessing correct responses?
354. H226 CFI
When an instructor critiques a student, it should always be
C) conducted immediately after the student's performance.
355. H227 CFI
Practical tests for pilot certification are
356. H227 CFI
The objective of the Practical Test Standards (PTS) is to ensure the certification of pilots at a high level of performance and proficiency, consistent with
357. H227 CFI
During oral quizzing in a given lesson, effective questions should
A) be brief and concise.
358. H227 CFI FOI
To be effective in oral quizzing during the conduct of a lesson, a question should
A) be of suitable difficulty for that stage of training.
359. H217 CFI FOI
Which method of presentation is desirable for teaching a skill such as ground school lesson on the flight computer?
360. H213 CFI FOI
To communicate effectively, instructors must
C) reveal a positive attitude while delivering their message.
361. H214 CFI FOI
By using abstractions in the communication process, the communicator will
C) not evoke in the listener's or reader's mind the specific items of experience the communicator intends.
362. H213 CFI FOI
The effectiveness of communication between instructor and student is measured by the
B) similarity between the idea transmitted and the idea received.
363. H214 CFI FOI
Probably the greatest single barrier to effective communication in the teaching process is a lack of
C) a common experience level between instructor and student.
364. H215 CFI FOI
When has instruction taken place?
B) When a procedure has been explained, and the desired student response has occurred.
365. H211 CFI FOI
When a student uses excuses to justify inadequate performance, it is an indication of the defense mechanism known as
366. H210 CFI FOI
Which of the student's human needs offer the greatest challenge to an instructor?
367. H210 CFI FOI
Before a student can concentrate on learning, which human needs must be satisfied?
368. H212 CFI FOI
When under stress, normal individuals usually react
B) by responding rapidly and exactly, often automatically, within the limits of their experience and training.
369. H212 CFI FOI
The instructor can counteract anxiety in a student by
A) treating the student's fears as a normal reaction.
370. H211 CFI FOI
When students display the defense mechanism called aggression, they
B) may refuse to participate in class activities.
371. H211 CFI FOI
When a student asks irrelevant questions or refuses to participate in class activities, it usually is an indication of the defense mechanism known as
372. H228 CFI FOI
Which is a true statement concerning the use of instructional aids?
B) Instructional aids should be designed to cover the key points in a lesson.
373. H233 CFI FOI
Which statement is true regarding positive or negative approaches in aviation instructional techniques?
B) A positive approach, to be effective, will point out the pleasurable features of aviation before the unpleasant possibilities are discussed.
374. H233 CFI FOI
Faulty performance due to student overconfidence should be corrected by
A) increasing the standard of performance for each lesson.
375. H233 CFI FOI
An instructor can most effectively maintain a high level of student motivation by
A) making each lesson a pleasurable experience.
376. H235 CFI FOI
True performance as a professional is based on study and
377. H235 CFI FOI
Which statement is true regarding true professionalism as an instructor?
A) Anything less than sincere performance destroys the effectiveness of the professional instructor.
378. H234 CFI FOI
In evaluating student demonstrations of piloting ability, it is important for the flight instructor to
B) keep the student informed of progress.
379. H234 CFI FOI
Evaluation of demonstrated ability during flight instruction must be based upon
A) established standards of performance, suitably modified to apply to the student's experience.
380. H204 CFI FOI
During the flight portion of a practical test, the examiner simulates complete loss of engine power by closing the throttle and announcing 'simulated engine failure'. What level of learning is being tested?
381. H203 CFI FOI
Insights, as applied to learning, involve a person's
B) grouping of associated perceptions into meaningful wholes.
382. H203 CFI FOI
Individuals make more progress learning if they have a clear objective. This is one feature of the principle of
383. H203 CFI FOI
Which statement is true concerning motivations?
B) Motivations may be very subtle and difficult to identify.
384. H206 CFI FOI
Where is information for future use stored?
C) Long-term memory.
385. H202 CFI FOI
The learning process may include some elements such as verbal, conceptual, and
C) problem solving.
386. H203 CFI FOI
Which is generally the more effective way for an instructor to properly motivate students?
B) Provide positive motivations by the promise or achievement of rewards.
387. H201 CFI FOI
A change in behavior as a result of experience can be defined as
388. H206 CFI FOI
Responses that produce a pleasurable return are called
389. H205 CFI FOI
A learning plateau may be defined as the
B) normal leveling-off of an individual's learning rate.
390. H206 CFI FOI
According to one theory, some forgetting is due to the practice of submerging an unpleasant experience into the subconscious. This is called
391. H206 CFI FOI
Which memory system processes input from the environment?
C) Sensory register.
392. H205 CFI FOI
The best way to prepare a student to perform a task is to
B) provide a clear, step-by-step example.
393. H207 CFI FOI
Which transfer of learning occurs when the performance of a maneuver interferes with the learning of another maneuver?
394. H203 CFI FOI
Which factor affecting perception has a great influence on the total perceptual process?
395. H204 CFI FOI
What level of knowledge is being tested if asked, 'What is the maneuvering speed of the aircraft listed in the owner's manual?'
396. H203 CFI FOI
A basic need that affects all of a person's perceptions is the need to
A) maintain and enhance the organized self.
397. H203 CFI FOI
What is the basis of all learning?
398. H203 CFI FOI
Which principle of learning implies that a student will learn more from the real thing than from a substitute?
C) Principle of intensity.
399. H203 CFI FOI
An instructor may foster the development of insights by
A) helping the student acquire and maintain a favorable self-concept.
400. H203 CFI FOI
The mental grouping of affiliated perceptions is called
401. H204 CFI FOI
Which domain of learning deals with knowledge?
402. H207 CFI FOI
To ensure proper habits and correct techniques during training, an instructor should
A) use the building block technique of instruction.
403. H203 CFI FOI
The principle that is based on the emotional reaction of the learner is the principle of
404. H247 CFI FOI
Each lesson of a training syllabus includes
C) objective, content, and completion standards.
405. H248 CFI FOI
Which statement is true regarding lesson plans?
C) Lesson plans help instructors keep a constant check on their own activity as well as that of their students.
406. H248 CFI FOI
Every lesson, when adequately developed, falls logically into the four steps of the teaching process -
B) preparation, presentation, application, and review and evaluation.
407. H245 CFI FOI
In planning any instructional activity, the first consideration should be to
A) determine the overall objectives and standards.
408. H248 CFI FOI
(Refer to figure 1.) Section A is titled:
409. H248 CFI FOI
(Refer to figure 1.) Section D is titled:
410. H248 CFI FOI
A lesson plan, if constructed properly, will provide an outline for
B) the teaching procedure to be used in a single instructional period.
411. H246 CFI FOI
Which statement is true concerning extraneous blocks of instruction during a course of training?
B) They detract from the completion of the final objective.
412. H235 CFI FOI
Which would more likely result in students becoming frustrated?
B) Telling students their work is unsatisfactory with no explanation.
413. H235 CFI FOI
Student confidence tends to be destroyed if instructors
A) bluff whenever in doubt about some point.
414. H223 CFI FOI
A question directed to an entire group to stimulate thought and response from each group member is identified as
415. H223 CFI FOI
Which question would be best as a leadoff question for a guided discussion on the subject of torque?
B) How does torque affect an airplane?
416. H223 CFI FOI
When it appears students have adequately discussed the ideas presented during a guided discussion, one of the most valuable tools an instructor can use is
C) an interim summary of what the students accomplished.
417. H224 CFI FOI
In the demonstration/performance method of instruction, which two separate actions are performed concurrently?
B) Student performance and instructor supervision.
418. H224 CFI FOI
What is the last step in the demonstration/performance method?
419. H225 CFI FOI
Which statement is true concerning computer-based training (CBT)?
B) One of the major advantages of CBT is that students can progress at a rate which is comfortable for them.
420. H221 CFI FOI
The first step in preparing a lecture is to
C) establish the objective and desired outcome.
421. H220 CFI FOI
The proper sequence for the subparts of an introduction is
A) attention, motivation, and overview.
422. H220 CFI FOI
The method of arranging lesson material from the simple to complex, past to present, and known to unknown, is one that
B) shows the relationships of the main points of the lesson.
423. H220 CFI FOI
In developing a lesson, the instructor should organize explanations and demonstrations to help the student
A) achieve the desired learning outcome.
424. H221 CFI FOI
An instructor can inspire active student participation during informal lectures through the use of
425. H222 CFI FOI
The most significant characteristic of group learning is that it
A) continually requires active participation of the student.
426. H219 CFI FOI
Which statement is true regarding student evaluation?
B) Evaluation of the student's learning should be an integral part of each lesson.
427. H219 CFI FOI
Evaluation of student performance and accomplishment during a lesson should be based on
A) objectives and goals established in the lesson plan.
428. H238 CFI FOI
Students who grow impatient when learning the basic elements of a task are those who
B) should have the preliminary training presented one step at a time with clearly stated goals for each step.
429. H237 CFI FOI
During integrated flight instruction, the instructor must be sure the student
A) develops the habit of looking for other traffic.
430. H238 CFI FOI
Students quickly become apathetic when they
C) recognize that the instructor is not adequately prepared.
431. H238 CFI FOI
Which is one of the ways in which anxiety will affect a student?
A) Anxiety may limit the student's ability to learn from perceptions.
432. H237 CFI FOI
Integrated flight instruction has many benefits but, the main objective is to
C) help the student develop habit patterns for observance of and reliance on flight instruments.
433. H749 CFI RTC
Ground resonance is most likely to occur when
B) a series of shocks cause the rotor system to become out of balance.
434. H767 CFI RTC
Removing the rotor force on a gyroplane can lead to
C) pilot induced oscillation.
435. H783 CFI RTC
In preparing to take off in a gyroplane, your student engages the clutch and prerotates the rotor to takeoff RPM. If brakes are released prior to disengaging the clutch, the gyroplane will turn
B) right because of rotor torque.
436. H703 CFI RTC
During forward cruising flight at constant airspeed and altitude, the individual rotor blades, when compared to each other, are operating at
B) unequal airspeed, unequal angles of attack, and equal lift moment.
437. H762 CFI RTC
Rotor blade rotation during powered flight in a gyroplane is produced by the
A) horizontal component of rotor lift.
438. H702 CFI RTC
When the angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is increased, the center of pressure will
B) have very little movement.
439. H705 CFI RTC
During flight, if you apply cyclic control pressure which results in a decrease in pitch angle of the rotor blades at a position approximately 90° to your left, the rotor disc will tilt
440. H703 CFI RTC
Rotor blade flapping action is
C) a design feature permitting continual changes in the rotor blade angle of attack, compensating for dissymmetry of lift.
441. H703 CFI RTC
The combination of lift and centrifugal force produces
442. H702 CFI RTC
How does a negative G maneuver affect a gyroplane's rotor RPM?
C) Decreases rapidly.
443. H783 CFI RTC
During the transition from prerotation to flight, all rotor blades change pitch
B) simultaneously but to different angles of incidence.
444. H762 CFI RTC
If the gyroplane's CG is below the propeller thrust line, which direction will the application of power cause the nose to move?
B) The nose will pitch down.
445. H766 CFI RTC
When is rotor downwash most prevalent in certain gyroplanes?
B) Immediately prior to touchdown after a steep approach.
446. H766 CFI RTC
Rotor torque is a concern in gyroplanes only during
A) prerotation or clutch engagement.
447. H767 CFI RTC
Which may lead to a power push-over in a gyroplane?
B) Rotor force is removed.
448. H767 CFI RTC
Which maneuver would cause the unloading the rotor system,and result in a possible power pushover?
C) After a pushover from a steep climb.
449. H767 CFI RTC
A gyroplane will have the greatest tendency to roll during
A) horizontal flight at high speed.
450. H763 CFI RTC
Longitudinal and lateral control of a gyroplane in flight are affected by
B) tilting the plane of rotation of the rotor in the direction that control is desired.
451. H762 CFI RTC
What should help prevent aircraft induced oscillation on a gyroplane?
A) Adding a horizontal stabilizer.
452. H709 CFI RTC
A one-per-revolution vibration in a gyroplane indicates which condition?
B) One rotor blade out of track.
453. H766 CFI RTC
Low speed blade flap on a gyroplane is a result of
A) taxiing too fast.
454. H766 CFI RTC
Which is true concerning taxi procedures in a gyroplane?
A) Keeping the rotor system level creates less lift and more stability.
455. L34 CFI ALL
Most midair collision accidents occur during
B) clear days.
456. L34 CFI ALL
The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to
B) avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.
457. J11 CFI ALL
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
B) ground track.
458. H767 CFI RTC
Which pilot action will help reduce pilot induced oscillation in a gyroplane?
A) Avoid flight at high speeds.
459. H766 CFI RTC
When landing a gyroplane in crosswind conditions, proper technique requires that the
B) direction of motion and heading coincide with runway direction.
460. H766 CFI RTC
In order to maintain level flight (laterally) as airspeed increases on climbout after takeoff in a gyroplane, the pilot will have to increase
B) cyclic pressure to the right.
461. H983 CFI RTC
Usable fuel at takeoff 40 gal
Fuel consumption rate 12.2 gal/hr
Constant groundspeed 120 kts
Flight time since takeoff 1 hr 30 min
According to FAR Part 91, how much farther can a rotorcraft be flown under day VFR?
B) 176 NM.
462. A24 CFI RTC
As pilot, how much gyroplane flight time should an applicant have for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with a gyroplane rating?
C) 25 hours.
463. H703 CFI RTC
After attaining effective translational lift during a normal takeoff, additional forward cyclic is required as the airspeed increases. Why is this action required?
B) To counteract the increase in lift which would result in the nose rising.
464. H702 CFI RTC
In a helicopter, drag is a force parallel to the
A) relative wind and perpendicular to lift.
465. H745 CFI RTC
During an autorotation, more forward cyclic is required than during powered flight in order to
C) attain an airspeed that will enable the rotor system to reach its equilibrium RPM.
466. H703 CFI RTC
Effective translational lift is that point during helicopter flight when
B) additional lift is obtained from increased airflow through the rotor disc.
467. H703 CFI RTC
The Vne of a helicopter is limited by
B) lateral controllability or retreating blade stall.
468. H703 CFI RTC
The ability of a rotor blade to rotate about its spanwise axis is called
469. H703 CFI RTC
Feathering of rotor blades means the angular change of the blades during a cycle of revolution in order to
C) equalize lift on the opposite (retreating and advancing blade) side of the disc.
470. H702 CFI RTC
Tip path plane may be described as
A) meaning the same as rotor disc.
471. H703 CFI RTC
The forward speed of a rotorcraft is restricted primarily by
A) dissymmetry of lift.
472. H703 CFI
(Refer to figure 37). During an autorotation, which portion of the rotor blades provides the thrust required to maintain rotor RPM?
C) Middle or autorotative.
473. H703 CFI RTC
Coriolis effect causes rotor blades to
B) accelerate and decelerate.
474. H703 CFI RTC
The tendency of a helicopter to drift in the direction of tail rotor thrust during a hover is called
B) translating tendency.
475. H703 CFI RTC
With the rotor turning at normal operating RPM, blades will bend upward due to
C) lift being greater than centrifugal force.
476. H703 CFI RTC
In certain single-rotor helicopters, the mast is rigged away from the vertical position by approximately 1°. This slight vertical offset is primarily for the purpose of counteracting
477. H720 CFI RTC
How does temperature and weight affect the Vne of a helicopter?
B) Vne decreases as temperature and weight increase.
478. H702 CFI RTC
As altitude increases, the VNE of most helicopters
479. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
C) cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
480. H927 CFI AIR, RTC
Detonation in an aircraft engine is most likely to occur whenever the
B) engine is operated under conditions which cause the fuel mixture to burn instantaneously.
481. H754 CFI RTC
A high-frequency vibration in flight would most likely indicate potential trouble with
B) a piston engine malfunction.
482. H705 CFI RTC
Can the tail rotor produce thrust to the left?
C) Yes; primarily to counteract drag of the transmission during autorotation.
483. H706 CFI RTC
What is the primary purpose of the freewheeling unit?
B) It provides disengagement of the engine from the rotor system for autorotation purposes.
484. H745 CFI RTC
The addition of power in a settling-with-power situation produces an
B) even greater rate of descent.
485. H746 CFI RTC
During a flare autorotative descent and landing, additional right pedal is required to maintain heading after initial collective pitch is applied. This action is necessary because of
B) the reduction in rotor RPM.
486. H746 CFI RTC
When performing a touchdown autorotation, what action is most appropriate?
B) Skids should be in a longitudinally level attitude at touchdown.
487. H745 CFI RTC
What action should be taken if the anti-torque system fails during forward flight?
B) Enter a normal autorotation by lowering the collective and rolling off the throttle.
488. H742 CFI RTC
When making a slope landing, the cyclic pitch control should be used to
B) hold the upslope skid against the slope.
489. H744 CFI RTC
During a pinnacle approach to a rooftop heliport under conditions of turbulence and high wind, the pilot should make a
C) steeper-than-normal approach, maintaining the desired angle of descent with collective applications.
490. H739 CFI RTC
Which statement pertaining to rapid decelerations is most accurate?
B) The rotor RPM will normally tend to increase during the entry and tend to decrease during the completion of the maneuver.
491. H748 CFI RTC
What are the major indications of an incipient retreating blade stall situation, in order of occurrence?
A) Low-frequency vibration, pitchup of the nose, and a tendency for the aircraft to roll.
492. H729 CFI RTC
During a takeoff in a crosswind, which describes proper control technique?
C) Heading is maintained with pedals; direction of movement (groundpath or track) is maintained with cyclic.
493. J15 CFI ALL
If an aircraft has a transponder, encoding altimeter, and DME, the proper equipment suffix to be entered on a flight plan is
494. I07 CFI ALL
Which distance is commonly displayed by a DME indicator?
B) Slant-range distance in nautical miles.
495. A29 CFI AIR, RTC
A recreational pilot with less than 400 hours' flight time may not act as pilot in command unless the pilot has
B) logged pilot-in-command time in the last 180 days.
496. A23 CFI RTC
What flight time is required for a Private Pilot Certificate with a helicopter rating?
A) A minimum of 40 hours, 19 hours of which must be in helicopters.
497. B08 CFI RTC
A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimum safe altitudes prescribed by regulations for other aircraft if
A) the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property.
498. B08 CFI RTC
Which is required to operate a helicopter within Class E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR?
C) The helicopter must be operated at a speed that allows the pilot the opportunity to see and avoid other traffic or obstructions.
499. H727 CFI RTC
To taxi on the surface in a safe efficient manner, one should use the cyclic pitch to
C) correct for drift during crosswind conditions.
500. H720 CFI RTC
Which situation would require the highest power setting to hover?
C) Over tall grass in zero wind conditions.
501. A22 CFI RTC
An applicant who is seeking a Student Pilot Certificate limited to helicopters is required to be at least how old?
A) 16 years.
502. L15 CFI ALL
What precautions should be taken with respect to aircraft oxygen systems?
C) Ensure that industrial oxygen has not been used to replenish the system.
503. I30 CFI ALL
A squall line is usually associated with a
B) fast-moving cold front.
504. H134 CFI
How much weight must be shifted from Station 150.0 to Station 30.0 to move the CG to exactly the aft CG limit?
Total weight 7,500 lb
CG location Station 80.5
Aft CG limit Station 79.5
C) 62.5 pounds.